Sometimes a Bible translator must alter the order of the Greek phrases so the English isn't confusing or miscommunicates. A good example is in 1 Thess 2:14. The majority of even the formal equivalent translations alter the phrase order, which illustrates why formal equivalent translations are not always transparent to the Greek.
Is there a difference in saying that John has no greater joy than hearing his children are walking “in the truth,” or walking “in truth”? If the Greek article in not in the prepositional phrase, then why do most English translations include it?
Sometimes it is difficult to know to which word you should attached a prepositional phrase. In Romans 1:4, there are three possibilities, all illustrated by the translations.
One of the many functions of the word ὁ is to turn a phrase into a noun, and one of the of the most common phrases is the prepositional phrase. Matt 24:17 show several examples of this, and it also provides an interesting exegetical issue. If this verse is about Jesus' return and the end of time, then why are the people told to not go back into their houses? Time is over; it doesn't matter what's in the house.