One of the many functions of the word ὁ is to turn a phrase into a noun, and one of the of the most common phrases is the prepositional phrase. Matt 24:17 show several examples of this, and it also provides an interesting exegetical issue. If this verse is about Jesus' return and the end of time, then why are the people told to not go back into their houses? Time is over; it doesn't matter what's in the house.

I am taking a break from blogging until August. We are off to Ireland for the annual NIV meeting, sightseeing around Ireland and Northern Ireland with my family, and then headed to Berlin for my daughter's wedding. Follow the fun on Instagram.com/billmounce. I will start up again some time in August.

And the answer is not that the verb is deponent. The answer has to do with the relationship between σα and θη forms.

When an adjective functions substantivally, generally we have to add in words from the context to make sense of the statement. Normally, it is not hard to do so, but it would appear that Acts 2:23 is somewhat troublesome. When Peters says that Jesus died by the hands of ἀνόμων, is he thinking of lawless people or non-Jewish people? And once more, can we stop saying Luke literally says "men without the Law, i.e. pagans" when Luke did not write English? Literally, Luke said ἀνόμων.

Why do some people resist the new, and why do others think the new is better than the old? Jesus' teaching is the new wine, and the purveyors of the old will almost always fight it, asserting their old forms of thinking are good enough or actually better. Why is it so hard to evaluate the new and decide whether or not it should replace our old? Let's think through Luke 5:39.

Interestingly, the NRSV translates the Greek phrase normally translated "the great tribulation" as "the great ordeal." Just because they are the only ones to do so doesn't make them wrong, but unique translations make for interesting discussion. Check out Revelation 7:14

When we translate the Greek conjunction γάρ as "for," we sometimes obscure the connection between verses. When Jesus says that the Pharisees wouldn't even get into the kingdom of God, how does that relate to his prior assertion that every iota and stroke of the pen found in the law will be fulfilled in him?

When can a present refer to the future, and what is the "more difficult reading" in textual criticism.

Paul says that the church is to formally agree to take care of widows who are truly alone and, among other things, have lives that witness to their good deeds. But how do you specify that the following clauses are all example of good works? Is it okay to use a colon in translation?

Sometimes, in an attempt to make a translation understandable, functional equivalent translations can lose clues as to meaning, the very thing they are trying not to do. In the case of Acts 1:24, the NIV loses the double use of τόπος.