If, then, perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people had received the law), what further need would there have been for another kind of priest to arise according to the order (taxin | τάξιν | acc sg fem) of Melchizedek, rather than one designated after the order (taxin | τάξιν | acc sg fem) of Aaron?
Reference
Hebrews 7:11
Sequence
7