When you have one preposition and two objects, the writer is telling you, in a very nuanced way, that you should be viewing the two objects as a single entity. Not identical, but in some way functioning as one. So when a single preposition governs both "God" and "Christ," what is Paul saying?

One of the many functions of the word ὁ is to turn a phrase into a noun, and one of the of the most common phrases is the prepositional phrase. Matt 24:17 show several examples of this, and it also provides an interesting exegetical issue. If this verse is about Jesus' return and the end of time, then why are the people told to not go back into their houses? Time is over; it doesn't matter what's in the house.

I am taking a break from blogging until August. We are off to Ireland for the annual NIV meeting, sightseeing around Ireland and Northern Ireland with my family, and then headed to Berlin for my daughter's wedding. Follow the fun on Instagram.com/billmounce. I will start up again some time in August.

And the answer is not that the verb is deponent. The answer has to do with the relationship between σα and θη forms.

When an adjective functions substantivally, generally we have to add in words from the context to make sense of the statement. Normally, it is not hard to do so, but it would appear that Acts 2:23 is somewhat troublesome. When Peters says that Jesus died by the hands of ἀνόμων, is he thinking of lawless people or non-Jewish people? And once more, can we stop saying Luke literally says "men without the Law, i.e. pagans" when Luke did not write English? Literally, Luke said ἀνόμων.