Sometimes you will find an initial conjunction and be tempted not to translate it. After all, we all learned in High School English to not start a sentence with a conjunction. I was inclined not to translate the initial γάρ in Matthew 20:1 until I looked closer at the overall context.

Some translations say Joseph was "just," and others that he was "righteous." What are the problem with either of those translations? How would you translate it? Hint: Mary appeared to have broken the law by becoming pregnant out of wedlock.

The NIV and CSB are the only two translations that treat Jesus' response to the centurion as a question, calling on him to make a commitment of faith. Are they right?

The ordering of phrases can be difficult, and sometimes force even a natural language translation like the NLT to follow awkward Greek word order. In English, phrases have to be next to the word they modify, and this can create confusion in translation.

When the angel tells Mary that she will have a baby, the angel concludes that no single word of God will fail. But what wouldn't fail, the word or what the word refers to?